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Real Decreto 271/2014, de 11 de abril, por el que se aprueba la Norma de Calidad para el yogur o yoghourt
(http://www.boe.es/boe/dias/2014/04/28/pdfs/BOE-A-2014-4515.pdf)
 
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Your analysis is enetrily bogus. Milton Friedman, Paul Volcker, Alan Greenspan, Ben Bernanke, etc. have copied the old and false notion that the "monetary base" as defined in this article is a "base" for the expansion of bank credit and the money supply. This is absolutely false. It follows from Dr. Leland James Pritchard, Ph.D - Economics, Chicago, 1933, Statistics, Syracuse:An expansion of currency held by the non-bank public draws down the volume of legal reserves. This would cause a multiple contraction of bank credit and money unless this increase was offset by an expansion of Reserve Bank Credit. but the trend rate of currency has been up ever since the 1920's. And the composition, or ratio, of currency included in the monetary base is now upwards of 90%. It is therefore both incorrect in theory and thus inaccurate in practice, to refer the DAMB figure as a monetary base.The only base for an expansion of total bank credit and the money supply is the volume of legal reserves supplied to the member banks by the Fed in excess of the volume necessary to offset currency outflows from the banking system. The adjusted member bank legal reserve figure is that base. http://tilhtx.com [url=http://sxbklzs.com]sxbklzs[/url] [link=http://qgjcfvgiul.com]qgjcfvgiul[/link]
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It is a bizarre amgruent. I personally prefer NGDPLT to inflation targeting, but this amgruent a little bit puzzled me. Since inflation targeting policy is forward-looking, the Bank of England will not conduct an expansionary monetary policy to correct the deflation that has already occurred. Therefore, the price level will stay as it is after the given positive AS shock occurs. Of course, the Bank of England may conduct expansionary monetary policy if it expects a deflation. Still, I'm not sure why its inflationary effect will cause relative price changes. In the given amgruent, as service sector price falls, relative prices of other sectors fall and deflation occurs. Then, to correct deflation, the BOE pushes money into the economy. As a result, nominal income goes up (actual observation shows real income goes up too, but do not touch that issue.) Service sector prices will rise as proportionately as other sector prices rise. Then, if other things stays the same, the price ratio of service sector goods to other goods will not change. Am I wrong?
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